The Christian Manosphere blogger Deep Strength has gone the way of churchians and decided the most fundamental aspects of family cannot be discussed. The definition of marriage and divorce.
A post was made on his blog about “Sexless Marriage and Other Relationship Statistics“. I pointed out that it’s meaningless because the definition of both marriage and divorce have been polluted in this comment. What I said is below, but his response was pictured in the screen-cap above, the subject of the Biblical definition of marriage and divorce are not subject to debate on his blog.
Deep Strength’s blog is titled as “Christianity and Masculinity” and he has in the past demonstrated that he is fully capable of doing Biblical research and exegesis. This is a perfect example of someone who claims to be a Christian refusing to see what God’s Word actually says because it so wildly conflicts with his beliefs.
Those familiar with this blog won’t see anything new here, I simply laid out the facts:
Again, no surprises, except that one of the supposed stalwarts of the Christian manosphere refuses to engage in a debate he will lose. He is doing exactly what the feminists do, shutting off the debate he can’t win. It would be interesting to see him (or anyone else) provide an explanation as to the following:
Category I: Definition of Marriage
- What is the Biblical definition of marriage, and what are the requirements of the Bible for the formation of marriage? In other words, what acts must be taken each and every time for all of time in order to form a marriage? At what point will God consider the man and woman married?
- What is the Biblical standard of commitment in marriage of the man and the woman? Are they the same or are they different?
- Are the requirements of marriage different for virgins and non-virgins? If so, why?
- Does the virgin have agency?
- How does the man demonstrate his consent and commitment to marriage?
- Is the Father’s permission required to marry his daughter?
Category II: Definition of Divorce
- According to Matthew 19, after quoting Genesis 2:24 on the subject of divorce, Jesus said “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it has not been this way.” Demonstrate from the text why divorce (which Moses “permitted”) has not been this way from the beginning. How was there no divorce from the beginning?
- According to Romans 4:15 and 5:13 the Law defines sin and therefore applies to everyone. According to Deuteronomy 4:2 and 12:32, it is forbidden to add to the Law or subtract from it. Does Christ have the authority to violate God’s Law by adding to or subtracting from the Law?
- Does Christ have the authority to command the servants He purchased with His blood to not divorce for any reason, even though Moses permitted husbands to divorce their wives if they committed adultery?
- Does Christ have the authority to command His male servants not to have sex with prostitutes, even though the Law makes no such prohibition?
- Does He have the authority to command His servants to only marry men or women who are also His servants? If so, do such regulations that Christ makes for His servants apply to those who are not Christians?
Category III: Definition of Sexual Immorality
- Is “sex outside the bounds of marriage” always a sin?
- What is the Biblical definition of “fornication”?
- What is the Biblical definition of adultery?
- If lust is a sin, what law is being violated?
- Is female homosexuality a sin?
- Is female prostitution a sin, in and of itself?
Category IV: Issues Related To Polygyny
- Is polygyny lawful?
- Did God support polygyny?
- Did God sometimes command polygyny?
- Did God have two wives?
- Did anything in the New Testament forbid polygyny?
- Does polygyny offer solutions for the marriage crisis today?
Rules: Sola Scriptura, no antinomies allowed, cite the definitive text with exegesis as necessary for each answer. Responses may be submitted by email to artisanaltoad at gmail or in the comments below.
For those of you who are new here, keep in mind that what the text cannot mean in light of other passages quite often determines what it does mean. I will provide one example:
It is often claimed (falsely) that Christ’s teaching in Matthew 19:4-6 forbade a man from having more than one wife. The problem with this is Jesus didn’t have the authority to change the Law because the Law clearly stated that it was not to be added to or subtracted from. Doing so was a violation, which is a sin. The Law supported having more than one wife and gave the regulations for a man who desired to do so.
Had Jesus actually been teaching a “one man and one woman” doctrine of marriage that forbid polygyny, He was in sin and therefore not a perfect and acceptable sacrifice and therefore could not have been the Messiah. If Jesus was not the Messiah we have no Christianity and the entire New Testament is a lie, so consider that we must not only look at what He said, we must consider it in light of what He could not possibly have meant with the words He used.